Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
13.06.2025 12:59
You'll usually find your answer there.
There's no rule.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Why would my husband cheat on me with an ugly fat woman?
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Can you provide a list of cities named after animals and the animals they were named after?
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Have you ever seen a woman having sex with a dog?
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.